Or you’ve got the wrong end of the stick entirely. Thank you keeping this great blog entry open, Lyagushka (Meirav). It is relevant enough to pop up on the first page of googling the “I am”. According to scholars of ancient Greek (Mourelatos, Kahn, Nehamas, …), the Greek ‘esti’ can mean ‘is’ but not ‘existence’. just the ordinary usage and not anything special. How to efficiently check if a matrix is a Toeplitz Matrix, How do rationalists justify the scientific method. The psalmist calls upon (or warns them) the nations of the earth to desist from attacking Israel again, because Yahweh is supreme and cannot be overcome. What that deliverance was is anyone's guess, but it goes on to suggest a few possible victories of Israel over its enemies that would've prompted this author to compose this psalm: Whichever victory it was that prompted the psalmist to write this, the aim of this composition is to show that Yahweh is supreme and victorious over the pagan gods, that "he breaks the bow and consigns wagons/chariots to the flames" (verse 9) according to his will, and no one can stop him. Be Still and Know that I am God. Not unless he chose to use that particular word – which would have sounded very weird, and I can’t imagine the gospel writers omitting to mention such an unusual thing. P.S. I’m a linguist, and would never have suggested anything so preposterous. The Psalmist writes as the What does it mean? some definite historical event. What would result from not adding fat to pastry dough. They plainly owe their origin to is on the second imperative. I’m saying no such thing. Certainly, Jesus’ use of the clause is a claim to be God. (Let alone if he had used the Tetragrammaton in reference to himself – that would have been so totally and utterly outrageous, they would have definitely written about it!). Please read my comments and see why I don’t think this makes sense. ), What was my point? But basically my view is this: when Jesus said, for example, “I am the truth, the way and the life”, in Hebrew this wouldn’t have sounded like it was connected with what is known as the “I AM”. I couldn’t see how the “I am” part would have done it on its own (because of what I tried to explain earlier about the use of “I am” in Hebrew). God is Our Refuge and Strength … 9 He makes wars to cease throughout the earth; He breaks the bow and shatters the spear; He burns the shields in the fire. ..then translated into koine…problem is the only complete documents we have are the koine, majority of the original Hebrew were by natural and/or human causes destroyed so that now we only have fragments of them…..please research this fact.. why would we think anything else knowing Shaul was a Hebrew as were most of his followers…. His mighty works of old time, and who have recognised in the course of So to answer your second question, "What does "be still" denote? One is a claim to being before eg past. So you’re saying that in Koine Greek there actually is a word for “am”? And looking again at Neil’s comment, he says that the Septuagint translates the word in Exodus 3:14 as “ἐγὼ εἰμί – I am”, i.e. Neil I think better. In other words, we surrender in order to know that God is in control as Ribbono Shel Olam – the Master of the Universe. In Psalm 1:6, what is the function of “know” and “way”? I have no idea what the ancient Egyptian for the phrase would be, but any peculiarity about present/future tense could have been the only way to force the phrase ‘I am that I am’ into Hebrew. Who else has been around since before Abraham? But let me try and sum this up more coherently: There is a claim that Jesus was sounding as though he was blaspheming because he said “I am”, which is the same as God’s name in Exodus 3:14. So in this passage Jesus said, “… before Abraham, YHWH.” Jesus used the word, that no Jew was suppose to say, or write – this was immediately evident to the Jews there. Know too that Yeshua is God! In that regard, it is interesting that the famous “I AM” statements of Jesus add “He in italics – take it out, and you have the Greek record of His words as plain “I AM” (cf His arrest in Gethsemane for an example). It is ludicrous: I’ve yet to meet an anglophone or francophone or Esperantist Jew who avoided using that language’s equivalent of the verb to be. The problem is more than language, though, it is theology. It’s the best I can do. What kind of overshoes can I use with a large touring SPD cycling shoe such as the Giro Rumble VR? According to the Cambridge Bible this psalm was composed by an author who lived in Jerusalem during times of crisis yet survived miraculously: These Psalms cannot be merely general expressions of confidence in

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